Free the slaves

 

 

“When you buy a Hebrew servant, he serves six years, and in the seventh he goes out free, for naught – Exodus 21:2.

I understand as I learnt from scripture lectures that Abraham was the first Hebrew and that Isaac, Jacob and his decedents are Hebrews, also known as the children of Israel. Jacob’s children or decedents are Israelites.

 

 

 

 

 

 

Does Exodus 21:2 mean that the tribes of Israel could take a fellow Israelite as a slave or is a Hebrew person more than just an Israelite. If Abraham was a Hebrew than Ishmael who is also a son of Abraham also a Hebrew.

Does the verse in Exodus 21:2 speak about an Ishmaelite?

Jeremiah 34:9 also speaks about Hebrew slaves.

Jeremiah 34:9 That every man should let his man servant, and every man his maid servant, being a Hebrew or an Hebrewess, go free; no one was to keep a Yahudiy, his brother, enslaved.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Why does it mention Hebrew and not Israel slaves?

Could it be the mention of Hebrew slaves to be from the tribes of Ishmael? If you read further in Jeremiah 34 than it is found not only to be from the tribes of Ishmael but also from Israel. Read the last part of verse 9 and 14.

Both Jeremiah 34:9 and 14 is speaking about “his brother who is a Hebrew,” meaning to me it is an Israelite slave.

Jeremiah 34:14 At the end of seven years each man should let go his brother who is a Hebrew, who has been sold to him. When he has served you six years, you shall let him go free from you. But your fathers did not listen to Me nor stretch out their ear.

 

Jeremiah 34:17 “Therefore thus said Yahuah, ‘You have not obeyed Me in proclaiming release, each one to his brother and each one to his neighbour. See, I am proclaiming release to you,’ declares Yahuah, ‘to the sword, to the pestilence, and to the scarcity of food! And I shall make you a horror to all reigns of the earth.

The disobedience of verse 17 for not letting the slaves go free after 7 years was another reason Judah in this case been punished. Read Jeremiah 34:18-22.

I must wonder how the slaves in those days are compared to modern day slaves. I mean we are a type of slave to this worldly society or system; we are not free. We may have more freedom than those in prison or maybe not all depending on what you want to be free from.

The only place I can be completely free is spiritual but again many people allow themselves to be demon possessed (enslaved) as well.

 

 

 

If you change the “slave” to “servant” than it does not have the same meaning.

Is this a mistranslation of scripture?